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10 free Paramedic practice questions: Advanced Trauma Assessment and Resuscitation

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

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Question 1 of 10

A 51-year-old patient with a severe closed head injury is intubated, and waveform capnography confirms correct tube placement with breath sounds equal bilaterally. The initial vital signs are BP 194/56 and P 46, the EtCO₂ is 54 mmHg, and the right pupil is 6 mm and sluggish to react. Positive pressure ventilations are increased to bring the EtCO₂ into the normal range. Ten minutes later, the EtCO₂ is 39 mmHg, the skin is warm and dry, the radial pulse is strong, the vital signs are BP 146/86 and P 84, and the right pupil is now 3 mm and brisk, equal to the left. What do these reassessment findings indicate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Intracranial pressure is trending downward in response to the ventilation change

The pressure inside this patient's skull is coming down. The ventilations were increased, and the EtCO₂ dropped from 54 to 39 mmHg. Normal EtCO₂ is 35 to 45 mmHg. The right pupil went from 6 mm and sluggish to 3 mm and brisk, equal to the left. A dilated pupil that shrinks back to normal tells you the pressure on the brain is easing. The blood pressure went from 194/56 to 146/86, and the pulse went from 46 to 84. Those changes fit the same improving trend. The skin is warm and dry and the radial pulse is strong, so nothing here points to shock. Keep ventilating to hold the EtCO₂ in the normal range.

Why the others are wrong

The patient is developing decompensated shock from occult blood loss: Decompensated shock from hidden blood loss would drop the blood pressure, and the pressure did fall here. The skin is warm and dry and the radial pulse is strong, and those are not signs of decompensated shock. A blood pressure that comes down while the heart rate returns toward normal fits the same improvement as the EtCO₂ and the pupil.

The endotracheal tube has slipped out of the trachea into the esophagus: A tube that slips into the esophagus loses the EtCO₂ reading. The number falls toward zero or becomes erratic. This patient's EtCO₂ is 39 mmHg, a normal and well formed reading. Waveform capnography and equal breath sounds already confirmed the tube.

Cerebral perfusion pressure has fallen to a critically low level: A critically low cerebral perfusion pressure means the brain is not getting enough blood flow. The pupil and the level of consciousness would get worse. This patient's pupil got better over the same 10 minutes.

Question 2 of 10

A 44-year-old patient struck in the chest by a steering wheel is hypotensive with distended neck veins and muffled heart tones. Breath sounds are clear and equal in all fields and the trachea is midline. The vital signs are BP 84/68, P 132, R 26, and SpO₂ 94% on room air. Which finding most clearly separates this from a tension pneumothorax?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The clear and equal breath sounds with a midline trachea

The clear and equal breath sounds with a midline trachea separate this from a tension pneumothorax. This patient has cardiac tamponade. Tamponade and a tension pneumothorax both squeeze the heart from the outside. Both cause hypotension and distended neck veins, so the neck veins cannot tell them apart. The breath sounds and the trachea can. A tension pneumothorax collapses one lung and pushes the chest structures away from it. The breath sounds go away on that side, and the trachea can shift. This patient has clear, equal breath sounds and a midline trachea, and that leaves tamponade. Transport rapidly. The fix for tamponade is not on the ambulance.

Why the others are wrong

The narrow gap between the systolic and diastolic pressures: A narrow pulse pressure does show up in tamponade. A narrow pulse pressure also shows up in many other low output states, including a tension pneumothorax. The narrow gap supports the picture, but it does not separate the two.

The heart rate of 132 alongside a systolic pressure of 84: A heart rate of 132 with a systolic pressure of 84 is the body's response to shock. Every cause of obstructive shock produces that response.

The distended neck veins in a hypotensive patient: Distended neck veins are the finding tamponade and a tension pneumothorax share. Both raise the pressure the heart has to fill against, and that backs blood up into the neck veins.

Question 3 of 10

A 24-year-old patient was stabbed once in the left side of the back at the level of the shoulder blade. The left leg is weak, and the patient cannot say where the left foot is positioned without looking at it. Pinprick and temperature are absent in the right leg, while the left leg feels pinprick normally. Which cord syndrome does this pattern match?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Brown-Séquard syndrome

This is Brown-Séquard syndrome. Brown-Séquard syndrome is a hemisection, meaning half of the spinal cord is cut. A hemisection gives you crossed findings. Movement and position sense are lost on the same side as the injury. Pain and temperature are lost on the other side. This patient has a weak left leg and cannot tell where the left foot is without looking. The right leg has no pinprick or temperature feeling, and the left leg feels pinprick normally. A hemisection is the only cord injury that splits the findings by side like that. The mechanism fits too. A hemisection usually comes from a penetrating injury like this stab wound, not from a fall. Field care is the same for all of the incomplete cord syndromes. The name matters for your report and for what the receiving team should expect.

Why the others are wrong

A complete cord transection: means the cord is cut all the way through, and a stab wound to the back can do that. A complete transection leaves no movement and no feeling below the injury on either side. This patient still moves the right leg and still feels pinprick in the left leg. The injury is incomplete.

Anterior cord syndrome: takes away movement, pain, and temperature, while position sense, vibration, and light touch are kept. Anterior cord syndrome hits both sides the same way. This patient lost position sense on the left and pain on the right, and a split by side is a hemisection.

Central cord syndrome: causes weakness that is worse in the arms than in the legs. Central cord syndrome usually follows a hyperextension injury, often in an older patient with a narrow spinal canal. This patient is 24 with one stab wound to the back, and the findings are in the legs.

Question 4 of 10

A 19-year-old was hit in the side of the head by a thrown ball, was briefly unresponsive, then woke and talked normally for about 25 minutes. The patient has now become very difficult to rouse, and the left pupil is larger than the right and slow to react. Which bleed does this course fit, and why?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · An epidural bleed, because arterial pressure fills the space fast

This course fits an epidural bleed. The patient was hit in the side of the head and was briefly unresponsive. Then the patient woke up and talked normally for about 25 minutes. Now the patient is very hard to rouse, and the left pupil is larger and slow to react. An epidural bleed comes from a torn artery outside the dura. Arterial pressure pumps blood into that space fast. The patient wakes up once the first concussion wears off and looks fine for a while. Then the clot grows and runs out of room, and the patient gets worse quickly. The larger pupil is on the same side as the bleed. The pressure is pushing the brain against the nerve that controls that pupil. Get moving to a neurosurgical center. Keep the head up about 30 degrees and the neck midline. Ventilate to a normal carbon dioxide level and protect the blood pressure. Call ahead with the time of each change you saw.

Why the others are wrong

A subdural bleed, because venous blood collects over hours: A subdural bleed is common after a head strike and belongs on the list. A subdural bleed comes from veins, and venous pressure fills the space slowly. Subdurals take hours to days to show up, not 25 minutes.

A diffuse axonal injury, because shearing causes deficits right away: Diffuse axonal injury comes from shearing during violent head movement, and it does cause a severe deficit. The deficit from shearing is there from the moment of injury. This patient talked normally for about 25 minutes first.

A subarachnoid bleed, because it is at its worst from the start: A subarachnoid bleed does start suddenly and severely, and those patients do get worse. A subarachnoid bleed is at its worst the moment it starts. This patient had a normal stretch before getting worse.

Question 5 of 10

A 24-year-old was the restrained driver in a high speed rollover. The head has no wound, no swelling, and no deformity, and the neck is midline and nontender. The patient does not open the eyes, makes no sound, and extends both arms to a painful stimulus. The vital signs are BP 128/74, P 96, R 14, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. Which injury best explains this?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Diffuse axonal injury from shearing of white matter tracts

This patient has a diffuse axonal injury. The head has no wound, no swelling, and no deformity. The patient still does not open the eyes, makes no sound, and extends both arms to pain. A high speed rollover spins the head hard. The brain twists inside the skull, and the long white matter tracts that connect one part of the brain to another get sheared. Shearing does not need an impact you can see. A severe deficit with a normal looking head is the classic finding for diffuse axonal injury. Do not downgrade this patient because the scalp is clean. Give the same care you give any severe head injury. Keep the oxygen saturation at or above 94, keep the blood pressure up, and ventilate to a normal carbon dioxide level. Keep the glucose and the temperature normal. Get moving to a center that can image and operate.

Why the others are wrong

An epidural bleed from a torn middle meningeal artery: An epidural bleed is the classic fast decline after a head injury. This bleed usually comes from a blow to the side of the head that leaves a mark. An epidural also gives a lucid interval, where the patient talks normally before getting worse. This patient's deficit has been there from the start.

A basilar skull fracture with bleeding into the sinuses: A basilar skull fracture can come from a serious crash like this one. A basilar fracture shows bruising around the eyes or behind the ears, or fluid from the nose or ears. None of those findings are present.

A depressed skull fracture pressing on the motor cortex: A depressed skull fracture presses on brain tissue and can cause a focal deficit. You can usually see or feel the depression. This patient's head has no wound, no swelling, and no deformity.

Question 6 of 10

A 44-year-old struck by a car has a severe head injury, does not follow commands, and is vomiting repeatedly. The vital signs are BP 86/54, P 128, R 8 and irregular, and SpO₂ 87% on an NRB. The crew has decided the airway has to be controlled now and is preparing to intubate. What protects the brain during that attempt?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Support the blood pressure and preoxygenate before any induction agent

Support the blood pressure and preoxygenate before you give any induction agent. In a severe head injury, hypoxia and hypotension during intubation are the two events most tied to a worse outcome. This patient already has both. The blood pressure is 86/54 and the oxygen saturation is 87% on a nonrebreather. You still have to control the airway now. The patient is vomiting repeatedly with no protective reflexes, and waiting is not an option. Preoxygenate on purpose. Bring the blood pressure up before you induce, if you can. Use the smallest dose of any drug that drops the pressure. Sedatives and positive pressure ventilation both cut the blood returning to the heart. A patient at 86 systolic cannot afford any more drop. A diluted push dose of epinephrine, prepared and titrated per protocol, is the standard way to cover that expected drop. The goal is a tube placed without adding a hypoxic or hypotensive episode.

Why the others are wrong

Hyperventilate through the attempt to keep the intracranial pressure down: Hyperventilation does lower the pressure inside the skull, and it has a narrow role when a patient is actively herniating. Routine hyperventilation narrows the blood vessels in the brain and cuts blood flow to tissue that is already short on blood flow. This patient has no signs of herniation.

Use a full induction dose so the first attempt is not interrupted: A full induction dose makes the patient easier to intubate, and a failed first attempt costs time. At 86 systolic, a full dose gets you that first pass along with a hypotensive episode. One hypotensive episode roughly doubles the death rate in a severe head injury.

Skip preoxygenation to shorten the time without ventilation: Speed does matter when a patient is desaturating, and a shorter time without breaths sounds safer. Preoxygenation is what gives you safe seconds during the attempt. Skipping preoxygenation at 87% guarantees the hypoxic episode you were trying to avoid.

Question 7 of 10

A 33-year-old with a significant head injury has been packaged with a cervical collar and secured to the stretcher. The collar straps are pulled tight across both sides of the neck, and the head is turned slightly to the left inside the collar. What should the crew change before starting transport?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Loosen the straps and bring the head back to midline

Loosen the straps and bring the head back to midline. The collar straps are pulled tight across both sides of the neck, and the head is turned to the left. Blood gets into the head under arterial pressure. Blood leaves the head through veins in the neck that have almost no pressure behind them. A tight strap squeezes those veins. Turning the head kinks the same veins. The blood backs up inside a skull with no room to spare, and the pressure inside the skull goes up. This is called increased intracranial pressure, or ICP. Fixing the packaging is part of treating this patient. Raise the head about 30 degrees if nothing else rules it out. Keep the neck midline and use a properly sized collar. The straps should be snug enough to hold the patient without pressing on the sides of the neck. Checking the packaging costs nothing. The packaging is one of the few things in a severe head injury that you control completely.

Why the others are wrong

Remove the collar and hold manual stabilization instead: Manual stabilization is a real technique, and holding the head by hand avoids the pressure a collar puts on the neck. Holding a head by hand for a whole transport is not practical. Manual stabilization also leaves the real problem in place, which is the tight straps and a head that is not midline.

Tighten the straps further and pad under the head: Secure packaging matters, and a patient who shifts during transport is a real problem. Tightening the straps squeezes the same neck veins the head drains through, and the pressure inside the skull goes up.

Leave the packaging as it is and raise the foot end: Raising the foot end moves blood toward the core in a patient with a pressure problem. Putting a head injured patient head down raises the pressure inside the skull.

Question 8 of 10

A 12-year-old baseball player collapsed immediately after being struck in the center of the chest by a pitched ball and is pulseless and apneic. The monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. What is the immediate treatment?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Immediate defibrillation

This child is in cardiac arrest from commotio cordis. The child collapsed right after a pitched ball hit the center of the chest, and the monitor already shows ventricular fibrillation. In commotio cordis, a blunt hit to the chest lands at the one vulnerable moment in the cardiac cycle. The hit throws a structurally normal heart into ventricular fibrillation. Treat it like any other ventricular fibrillation arrest. The rhythm is already on the monitor, so defibrillate now, with no delay. Commotio cordis is one of the most survivable arrests when the shock comes fast.

Why the others are wrong

Two minutes of compressions before any shock: This child is already in ventricular fibrillation with a defibrillator attached, so the shock comes first. Holding it for two minutes keeps the heart in ventricular fibrillation for two more minutes. The two minutes of compressions come after a shock, before the next rhythm check.

Rapid transport with compressions only: The monitor already shows ventricular fibrillation, and what this child needs is a shock. Loading the child first delays it. Rapid transport with compressions is for an arrest whose fix is at a trauma center, like a penetrating chest wound with a short down time.

Needle decompression of the left chest: Needle decompression treats a tension pneumothorax, with absent lung sounds and hypotension from a shifted mediastinum. This child has ventricular fibrillation from a blow to the chest, not a collapsed lung.

Question 9 of 10

A 58-year-old patient was struck in the chest by a steering wheel during a motor vehicle collision. There is no bruising or discoloration visible on the chest wall, and the paramedic is assessing for a blunt cardiac injury. Which finding is most consistent with that diagnosis?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Retrosternal chest pain with a new-onset dysrhythmia

Retrosternal chest pain with a new dysrhythmia points to a blunt cardiac injury, also called a myocardial contusion. The steering wheel hit this patient's chest and bruised the heart muscle. A bruised heart causes chest pain behind the sternum that can look like a heart attack. The bruised muscle can also cause dysrhythmias and ECG changes. Blunt cardiac injury often leaves no bruising or discoloration on the chest wall. A chest wall that looks normal should not reassure you. Chest pain plus a new dysrhythmia after a steering wheel impact means you should expect this patient to get worse.

Why the others are wrong

A single area of point tenderness over one rib with a normal 12-lead: Blunt cardiac injury shows dysrhythmias and ECG changes, and this 12-lead is normal. Point tenderness over one rib with a normal 12-lead points to an isolated rib fracture.

Diffuse abdominal tenderness with a rigid abdomen: C describes the abdomen, not the heart. A rigid, tender abdomen points to an injured abdominal organ from the same crash, while blunt cardiac injury causes chest pain and dysrhythmias.

A widened pulse pressure with warm, flushed skin: a distributive shock pattern. Retrosternal pain and dysrhythmias are what point to a blunt cardiac injury, and warm, flushed skin is not part of that injury.

Question 10 of 10

A 63-year-old patient was in a high-speed collision. The patient is confused, the pelvis is unstable on gentle palpation, and the skin is cool and pale. The vital signs are BP 86/54, P 124, and R 28. A community hospital without surgical capability is 6 minutes away, and a Level I trauma center is 22 minutes away. Where should the paramedic transport this patient?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The trauma center, because the patient is unstable

This patient is in shock and is most likely bleeding from the unstable pelvis. The BP is 86/54, the pulse is 124, the skin is cool and pale, and the patient is confused. The low blood pressure and the confusion put this patient in the top tier of the field trauma triage criteria. Physiologic criteria rank above mechanism, injuries, and travel time. An unstable pelvis in a 63 year old is very likely to need surgery to stop the bleeding. The community hospital is closer, but it has no surgical capability. Going to the trauma center adds 16 minutes and gets this patient an operating room and a trauma surgeon. The destination is the highest level of trauma care you can reach in a reasonable time, not the closest emergency department.

Why the others are wrong

The community hospital, because it is closest: The community hospital has no surgeon to stop the bleeding from this unstable pelvis. This patient has an open airway, is breathing at 28, and can handle 22 minutes with resuscitation going. The closest hospital is the destination only when it can fix the problem, or when the patient cannot survive a longer ride, like an airway you cannot manage or a cardiac arrest.

The trauma center, only if air transport is available: Air or ground does not change which hospital this patient needs, and the trauma center is 22 minutes away by ground. Setting up a landing zone would usually cost more time than air saves. Air transport is for a long transport or a scene ground units cannot reach.

The community hospital, to stabilize before transfer: A patient bleeding from an unstable pelvis cannot be stabilized without surgery, and the community hospital has none. The stop adds a second assessment, a second packaging, and a second transport while the bleeding keeps going. The exception is a patient who cannot survive the longer trip at all, and this patient can.

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