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Free NREMT practice questionsFree Paramedic practice questions · Cardiology & Resuscitation

10 free Paramedic practice questions: Cardiogenic Shock and Decompensated Heart Failure

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

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Question 1 of 10

A paramedic is considering continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) for a 70-year-old patient in acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Which finding would make CPAP inappropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Responsiveness only to pain

CPAP pushes fluid out of the alveoli in acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema, and the device does not breathe for the patient. The patient has to be awake enough to protect their own airway and follow instructions, so an altered mental status that prevents cooperation is a contraindication, along with apnea, agonal breathing, respiratory or cardiac arrest, active vomiting, an upper gastrointestinal bleed, hypotension with a systolic pressure commonly below 90 mmHg, a suspected pneumothorax, and facial trauma that prevents a seal. A patient who responds only to pain cannot protect the airway or follow instructions. That's why this finding rules CPAP out, and the paramedic moves to bag-valve-mask ventilation.

Why the others are wrong

Pink frothy sputum: a sign of advanced pulmonary edema, the condition CPAP treats. A sicker pulmonary edema patient is still a CPAP patient as long as they can protect the airway and follow instructions.

Very fast, labored breathing: Fast, labored breathing is the work of breathing CPAP reduces. The breathing problems that rule CPAP out are apnea, agonal breathing, and arrest, where the patient has no effective breathing of their own for the device to support.

Severe hypertension: CPAP raises intrathoracic pressure and reduces preload, so the pressure that makes it unsafe is a low one: hypotension with a systolic pressure commonly below 90 mmHg. Severe hypertension is not on the contraindication list.

Question 2 of 10

A 71-year-old patient with acute pulmonary edema has been on CPAP for 12 minutes. The patient's breathing has become easier, and the SpO₂ has risen from 84% to 96%. The vital signs, initially BP 178/96, are now BP 84/52, and the patient reports feeling lightheaded. What does this change in blood pressure most likely represent?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Reduced venous return from raised intrathoracic pressure

This blood pressure drop is from the CPAP. CPAP raises the pressure inside the chest. That higher pressure pushes back on the blood returning to the heart through the veins. Less blood coming back to the heart means less blood for the heart to pump out. The blood pressure has fallen from 178/96 to 84/52, and the patient feels lightheaded. Watch the blood pressure closely on any patient you put on CPAP.

Why the others are wrong

An allergic reaction to the CPAP mask material: An allergic reaction to the mask would give you hives, new wheezing, or swelling of the face or airway. This question gives you none of those.

Resolution of the underlying pulmonary edema: The easier breathing and the SpO₂ of 96% can look like the pulmonary edema has resolved. Pulmonary edema does not resolve within minutes. The timing of the blood pressure drop lines up with a known effect of CPAP instead.

Peak effect of a home antihypertensive medication taken earlier: A home blood pressure medication can lower the pressure. The question never says the patient took one. The drop started on CPAP, and CPAP explains the drop much better.

Question 3 of 10

Which of the following best explains why CPAP improves oxygenation in a patient with acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Positive pressure that reopens collapsed alveoli and clears alveolar fluid

CPAP improves oxygenation by reopening alveoli that are collapsed and full of fluid. In acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the left ventricle is failing. Fluid backs up from the left ventricle into the lungs and floods the alveoli. Blood passes those flooded alveoli and never picks up oxygen. CPAP holds positive pressure in the lungs while the patient breathes in and while the patient breathes out. The pressure opens the collapsed alveoli back up. The pressure also pushes fluid out of the alveoli and back into the pulmonary capillaries. Air and blood meet again in those alveoli, and oxygenation improves. That is why CPAP goes on early in flash pulmonary edema, before intubation is considered.

Why the others are wrong

Increased venous return that restores adequate cardiac preload: CPAP does change blood flow, but in the opposite direction from this option. Raising the pressure in the chest decreases venous return and lowers preload. Lower preload actually helps a fluid-overloaded left ventricle. The question asks about oxygenation, and the better oxygenation comes from the reopened alveoli.

Relaxation of coronary artery smooth muscle that increases myocardial blood flow: Relaxing coronary artery smooth muscle describes nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin dilates the veins and coronary arteries and lowers preload and afterload. CPAP has no direct effect on the coronary arteries.

Increased systemic vascular resistance that raises alveolar perfusion pressure: CPAP does not raise systemic vascular resistance. Raising systemic vascular resistance would increase the afterload on a failing ventricle. Higher afterload makes pulmonary edema worse, not better.

Question 4 of 10

A 63-year-old patient develops sudden difficulty breathing two days after a knee replacement. The patient is anxious and pale, the neck veins are distended, and the lungs are clear in every field. The vital signs are BP 78/54, P 132, R 32, and SpO₂ 86% on room air. Which finding points to obstructive shock rather than cardiogenic shock?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The clear lung fields alongside the distended neck veins

This patient most likely has a massive pulmonary embolism, which causes obstructive shock. The neck veins are distended, and the lungs are clear in every field. Cardiogenic shock and obstructive shock both fill the neck veins. In both, blood backs up behind a heart that cannot push it forward. The lungs are what separate the two. When the left ventricle fails, blood backs up into the lungs and floods the alveoli, so you hear crackles. A pulmonary embolism blocks the blood before it reaches the lungs. The neck veins fill, and the alveoli stay dry. This patient is also two days out from a knee replacement. Full neck veins with clear lungs after surgery points you toward obstructive shock and away from treating pump failure. One exception is a right ventricular infarct. A right ventricular infarct also leaves the lungs clear, so the rest of the assessment and the 12-lead still matter.

Why the others are wrong

The sudden onset of difficulty breathing at rest: Acute pulmonary edema can come on over minutes too, so sudden onset does not tell an embolism from a failing heart. How fast the breathing trouble started narrows your thinking, but it does not decide the shock type.

The oxygen saturation of 86% on room air: An SpO₂ of 86% can come from a massive embolism or from pulmonary edema, so it cannot separate the two. The saturation tells you this patient needs oxygen now. It does not tell you whether the problem is before the lungs, like an embolism, or after them, like a failing left ventricle.

The heart rate above 130 with a systolic in the 70s: Every kind of shock on the list can give you a heart rate above 130 and a systolic in the 70s. Those numbers tell you this patient is in shock, not which kind.

Question 5 of 10

A 68-year-old patient reports that shoes stopped fitting over the past two weeks. The lungs are clear in every field, both ankles pit when pressed, the neck veins are distended while the patient sits upright, and the right upper abdomen is tender. The vital signs are BP 128/78, P 92, R 20, and SpO₂ 95% on room air. Which pattern does this exam describe?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Right-sided failure backing up into the body

This patient has right-sided heart failure. The shoes stopped fitting over the past two weeks, and both ankles pit when pressed. The neck veins are distended even with the patient sitting upright. The right upper abdomen is tender, and the lungs are clear in every field. The right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs. When the right ventricle fails, blood backs up into the body instead. That backup causes pitting edema in the ankles and legs and distended neck veins. The liver swells too, which makes the right upper abdomen tender. The lungs stay clear because the backup is behind the right side of the heart.

Why the others are wrong

An early pneumonia settling into both bases: Pneumonia can settle into the lung bases. Pneumonia gives you a fever, a productive cough, and abnormal sounds over the affected part of the lung. This patient has clear lungs and nothing that points to infection.

Volume depletion from two weeks of poor intake: Two weeks of eating and drinking less can leave an older patient dry. A dry patient has flat neck veins because there is not enough volume to fill them. This patient's neck veins are distended and the ankles pit. The fluid is there, and it is backed up into the body.

Left-sided failure backing fluid into the lungs: Left-sided failure is the right organ but the wrong side. When the left ventricle fails, fluid backs up into the lungs and you hear crackles. This patient's lungs are clear in every field.

Question 6 of 10

A 64-year-old patient has crushing chest pressure that started 40 minutes ago. The lungs are clear in every field and the neck veins are distended. The 12-lead ECG shows an inferior wall myocardial infarction. The vital signs are BP 82/58, P 56, R 20, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. Which treatment fits this patient's hypotension?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Small boluses of isotonic fluid titrated to response

This patient most likely has a right ventricular infarction. Small fluid boluses titrated to response are the right treatment for the hypotension. The 12-lead shows an inferior wall MI, the lungs are clear, the neck veins are distended, and the pressure is 82/58. An inferior MI often involves the right ventricle. Clear lungs with distended neck veins in a patient with chest pressure is the pattern that should make you think of the right ventricle. The right ventricle is preload dependent. A preload dependent ventricle needs volume coming back from the body to fill and push blood forward into the lungs. That's why this is the one cardiogenic presentation where fluid is the right answer. Give a small fluid bolus, then recheck the pressure and the lungs before you give more. Do not give nitroglycerin or anything else that lowers preload. Dropping the preload can crash this patient's pressure hard.

Why the others are wrong

A single large bolus of isotonic fluid run wide open: This patient does need volume, so fluid is the right direction. Running one large bolus wide open takes away the chance to recheck after each amount. The left ventricle can still flood the lungs if you give too much.

Sublingual nitroglycerin to open the vessels: Nitroglycerin opens the vessels and is a normal part of treating chest pain. Nitroglycerin drops preload, and preload is the one thing this right ventricle cannot afford to lose. Giving nitroglycerin here can turn a soft pressure into a crash.

Supine positioning with the legs raised and nothing else: Raising the legs does move a little blood toward the core, and raising the legs does no harm. Positioning alone is not enough for a pressure of 82/58, and positioning is not the treatment this pattern calls for.

Question 7 of 10

An 81-year-old patient is fighting for air at the top of a flight of stairs. There are crackles through both lung fields, distended neck veins, and pink frothy sputum at the lips. The patient is alert and following commands. The vital signs are BP 98/70, P 122, R 34, and SpO₂ 84% on room air. Which intervention will have the greatest impact?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Apply CPAP and keep the patient upright

This patient is in acute pulmonary edema, and CPAP is going to help the most. There are crackles in both lungs, distended neck veins, and pink frothy sputum at the lips. The SpO₂ is 84% and the respirations are 34. The alveoli are filling with fluid, so oxygen cannot get across into the blood. CPAP pushes pressure into the lungs and opens the collapsed alveoli back up. The pressure also pushes fluid back out of the alveoli. CPAP lowers both preload and afterload at the same time. A pressure of 98 does not mean this patient needs fluid. This patient already has too much fluid, and the fluid is in the lungs. The patient is alert, following commands, and breathing without help. That's the patient CPAP is made for. Keep the patient sitting upright. Never lay a patient in acute pulmonary edema flat.

Why the others are wrong

Assist breathing with a BVM at 20 breaths per minute: A BVM is for a patient who can no longer breathe well enough without help. This patient is alert, following commands, and pulling breaths on their own. The ability to do the work of breathing has not been lost. Ventilating with a BVM is where you go if that changes.

Lay the patient supine and run a 500 mL fluid bolus: Laying the patient flat and running fluid is the reflex for most other kinds of shock. A systolic of 98 is low, but this patient's lungs are already flooded. A 500 mL bolus adds more fluid to them. Sitting upright lets gravity keep some of the fluid out of the upper lungs, and laying the patient flat takes that away.

Place an NRB at 15 liters per minute and transport: An NRB at 15 liters per minute is a reasonable first move while you set up CPAP. An NRB only gives a richer oxygen mix. The alveoli are still full of fluid, so the oxygen still cannot get across. Pressure is what moves the fluid out, and an NRB gives no pressure.

Question 8 of 10

A 73-year-old patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema has been on CPAP for twelve minutes. The effort has weakened, the patient now answers only with a nod, and chest rise is shallow. The mask seal is intact and the device is delivering the set pressure. The vital signs are BP 92/60, P 130, R 8, and SpO₂ 84% on CPAP. What is the appropriate action?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Move to positive pressure ventilations and intubate

This patient is in respiratory failure, and CPAP is no longer enough. The effort has weakened, the patient can only nod, and chest rise is shallow. The respirations are down to 8, and the SpO₂ is 84% on CPAP. The mask seal is intact and the device is delivering the set pressure, so the equipment is not the problem. The patient is tiring and losing mental status. CPAP only works for a patient who can still pull breaths on their own. Once mental status declines, the CPAP trial is over. Move to positive pressure ventilations and place an advanced airway. Tightening a strap or turning up the pressure does not help a patient who has stopped doing the work.

Why the others are wrong

Tighten the mask straps and coach the patient through it: Coaching is what gets most patients through the first minutes on CPAP. Coaching and tightening straps are the right move when the problem is the mask. This seal is already intact, and the device is delivering the set pressure. Tighter straps fix a mechanical problem this patient does not have.

Increase the CPAP pressure by one step per protocol: Stepping the pressure up inside the protocol range helps a patient who is holding on. More pressure only helps a patient who can still pull breaths through it. This patient is breathing 8 times a minute with shallow chest rise. Turning the pressure up gives a stiffer mask and no more air.

Remove the CPAP and place an NRB at 15 liters: Removing CPAP from a patient who can no longer use it sounds reasonable, since CPAP asks for work this patient has stopped doing. An NRB at 15 liters gives less support, and this patient needs more support. The patient would still be breathing 8 times a minute without help. Those breaths have to be replaced with ventilations.

Question 9 of 10

A 71-year-old patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema has been on CPAP for fifteen minutes. The vital signs on scene were BP 138/86, P 104, R 32, and SpO₂ 88%, with warm hands. The vital signs now are BP 136/92, P 128, R 30, and SpO₂ 91%, with cool fingertips and a slower capillary refill. What does this trend most likely show?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Perfusion is getting worse while the pressure holds

This patient's perfusion is getting worse while the blood pressure holds. Compare the two sets of vital signs. The systolic went from 138 to 136, which is barely a change. The pulse went from 104 to 128. The hands were warm, and now the fingertips are cool and the capillary refill is slower. A rising pulse with cooling skin and a steady pressure means the body is working harder to hold that pressure up. The saturation went from 88% to 91%, so the CPAP is helping the lungs. Meanwhile the circulation is getting worse. When the pressure finally falls, you are finding out late. Act on the trend now.

Why the others are wrong

The rising pulse is anxiety from the mask: A CPAP mask can make a patient anxious, and anxiety raises the pulse. Anxiety does not cool the fingertips or slow the capillary refill. Those two findings make this a perfusion problem.

The patient is responding well to the treatment: The saturation did improve, but the pulse and the skin both got worse. A faster pulse with cooler skin means the patient is working harder to hold the same pressure, and that is not a good response.

The CPAP is no longer reaching the alveoli: CPAP that stops reaching the alveoli would drop the saturation. This saturation went up from 88% to 91%. The lungs are the part of this patient that improved.

Question 10 of 10

A 72-year-old patient has hypotension, tachycardia, and cool mottled skin. Crackles are audible bilaterally, and the jugular veins are distended. The paramedic determines that the patient is not low on fluid. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Begin a vasoactive medication infusion per protocol

This patient is in cardiogenic shock. The patient has hypotension, tachycardia, cool and mottled skin, crackles in both lungs, and distended jugular veins. The question tells you volume status is not the problem. The left ventricle cannot pump blood forward. Blood backs up into the lungs, which gives you the crackles. Pressure also backs up into the veins, which gives you the JVD. The blood vessels in the skin tighten, which gives you the cool, mottled skin. Fluid would only make the congestion worse. Start a vasoactive infusion per protocol. An inotrope or a pressor supports how hard the heart squeezes and keeps up the perfusion pressure without adding volume.

Why the others are wrong

Administer a large-volume normal saline bolus: A large fluid bolus is the standard fix for hypovolemic shock, where the hypotension and tachycardia come from too little volume. This patient has bilateral crackles and JVD, and the patient is not low on fluid. The ventricle is failing, not empty. A large bolus floods lungs that are already backing up.

Withhold treatment until a 12-lead ECG is obtained: A 12-lead ECG helps find an infarct or a dysrhythmia behind the pump failure. This patient already has hypotension and cool, mottled skin from poor perfusion. Holding treatment for a test delays the vasoactive support that needs to start now.

Administer a high-dose diuretic to reduce total body fluid: A diuretic pulls fluid off a patient with pulmonary congestion. This patient is already hypotensive. Lowering the blood volume further drops the perfusion pressure and makes the shock worse. The diuretic does nothing for the failing pump that is causing the shock.

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