10 free Paramedic practice questions: Advanced Neurologic Emergencies
These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.
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Question 1 of 10
A 7-month-old patient had a 2-minute generalized seizure at home with a fever since yesterday evening. Twenty minutes later the infant is awake, screams when handled, and lies quiet and looks ill between cries. The caregiver says feeding has been poor and the infant vomited once. The neck is supple and no rash is present. Vital signs are BP 92/58, P 172, R 38, SpO₂ 97%, and T 102.9°F. The anterior fontanelle feels full while the infant is screaming. Which additional assessment finding would best separate a simple febrile seizure from a central nervous system infection?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Fontanelle tension once the infant is calm and no longer crying
The fontanelle, checked once the infant is calm, is what separates a simple febrile seizure from a brain infection like meningitis. This 7-month-old looks ill between cries, is feeding poorly, and has vomited. The fontanelle felt full while the infant was screaming. A fever, a brief seizure, and vomiting can happen with a simple febrile seizure or with an infection. None of them separates the two. In an infant, the findings of meningitis are fever, vomiting, irritability, lethargy, and a bulging fontanelle. The neck signs are listed for older children. A bulging fontanelle points to increased pressure inside the skull in an ill-appearing infant who is not crying. A reading taken while the infant screams is not a calm reading, so the full fontanelle does not count yet. Recheck the fontanelle once the infant is calm and no longer crying.
Why the others are wrong
A positive Brudzinski sign when the neck is flexed: A positive Brudzinski sign is a classic meningitis finding, and it is listed for older children along with Kernig's sign. This patient is 7 months old, and the neck is already supple. In infants, meningitis shows up as fever, vomiting, irritability, lethargy, and a bulging fontanelle.
Whether the temperature falls with cooling and undressing: A falling fever can seem reassuring. How a fever responds to cooling is not one of the findings of meningitis in an infant. A temperature that comes down does not tell you the infection is gone.
The blood glucose level checked at first contact with the infant: Glucose is checked on every seizure, and a low glucose is a cause you can fix. This infant already has a fever and a full fontanelle to explain. A normal glucose level would not tell a simple febrile seizure from an infection.
Question 2 of 10
A 3-week-old patient had a 1-minute episode of rhythmic eye blinking and limb jerking at home. The caregiver reports poor feeding since the morning and fewer wet diapers than usual, and says the infant was lightly dressed in a cool room. The infant is sleepy and arouses weakly to touch. Vital signs are BP 70/40, P 178, R 56, SpO₂ 95%, and rectal T 100.8°F. The caregiver asks whether this is a fever seizure like the one a sibling had. Which statement best explains why the paramedic treats this as a possible serious infection instead?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · The infant is below the febrile seizure age range and responds poorly to infection
This 3-week-old may have a serious infection, and the seizure is not a febrile seizure. Febrile seizures happen from roughly six months to five or six years old. This infant is well below that range. In a newborn, a rectal temperature above 100.4°F is a fever. A newborn has a limited ability to fight infection. A serious infection in a newborn shows up as vague findings, like a change in mental status and poor feeding. Meningitis is one of the listed causes of seizures in a newborn. The sibling's fever seizure does not apply, because the age does not fit. Treat this infant for a possible serious infection and transport.
Why the others are wrong
Maternal antibodies are gone by this age, so infection spreads within hours: Maternal antibodies are not gone at 3 weeks. Passive immunity from the mother's antibodies lasts through the first six months of life. The risk in a newborn comes from a limited ability to fight infection, not from a lack of antibodies.
A rectal temperature of 100.8°F is too low to cause a seizure: A rectal temperature above 100.4°F is a fever in a newborn, so 100.8°F counts. The age decides this question, not how high the temperature is. Option C also leaves the sleepy infant and the poor feeding unexplained.
A newborn's temperature control is immature, so the fever reflects overheating: Newborns do have limited control of body temperature, so overheating is possible. This infant was lightly dressed in a cool room, so overheating does not fit. Overheating also would not explain the poor feeding, the sleepiness, or the seizure activity.
Question 3 of 10
A 57-year-old patient fainted while standing at a bus stop on a mild day. Bystanders saw a few brief jerks of the arms as the patient went down. The patient is alert within a minute, the skin is pale and moist, and the pulse is regular. Vital signs are BP 132/80, P 84, R 16, SpO₂ 98%, and blood glucose level 102 mg/dL. Which additional finding would most strongly favor a cardiac cause over a vasovagal faint?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · No lightheadedness or warmth at any point before going down
No lightheadedness or warmth before going down is what points to a cardiac cause. Everything else in the question fits both a vasovagal faint and a cardiac one. The patient was standing, woke within a minute, has pale, moist skin, and has normal vital signs and blood glucose level. A vasovagal faint builds up. The vagal surge slows the heart and lets blood pool away from the brain. That's why the patient feels lightheaded, warm, or nauseated first. A sudden collapse with no warning at all is a cardiac red flag. Ask what the patient felt before going down. A patient who felt nothing gets the cardiac monitor and prompt transport.
Why the others are wrong
Nausea and sweating as the patient is lowered to the ground: Nausea and sweating as the patient goes down sound like a sick patient. They are the warning of a vasovagal faint, so they point away from the heart.
Confusion lasting under a minute after the patient wakes: Confusion after waking, with a few jerks of the arms as the patient went down, sounds like a seizure. A few jerks do not turn a faint into a seizure. Confusion lasting under a minute fits any faint, so it does not separate the two causes.
Blood pressure that normalizes once the patient is flat: A blood pressure that normalizes once the patient is flat is the vasovagal pattern. The question asks what favors a cardiac cause, and this finding favors a simple faint.
Question 4 of 10
A 27-year-old patient reports a throbbing headache on the right side of the head that started two hours ago after seeing shimmering lights in their peripheral vision, along with nausea and sensitivity to light. The patient has a history of similar headaches roughly once a month and is lying still in a dark bedroom with the lights off. No one else in the household has any symptoms. The paramedic notes the vital signs are BP 118/76, P 88, R 16, and SpO₂ 98% on room air. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Migraine headache
This patient is having a migraine headache. Right before the headache started, the patient saw shimmering lights in their peripheral vision. Those lights are a visual aura, a warning sign that comes before a migraine. The aura comes from a short wave of changed activity moving across the surface of the brain, not from a toxin or an infection. The throbbing pain on one side, the light sensitivity, and headaches like this about once a month all fit a migraine. Nobody else in the household is sick, so a shared exposure does not fit. Give supportive care in a calm, dark room. This patient does not need oxygen therapy or a workup for infection.
Why the others are wrong
Bacterial meningitis: This headache comes back about once a month, and meningitis is a sudden, first time illness, not a pattern that repeats. Meningitis also brings fever and a stiff neck, and neither is described here.
Carbon monoxide poisoning: Only this patient is sick. No combustion source is mentioned, and no sick household member or pet is mentioned either. Carbon monoxide makes several people in a space with a fuel burning appliance sick together.
Acute viral gastroenteritis: would bring vomiting, diarrhea, and body aches, usually after contact with someone sick. Here the nausea comes with a one sided headache after a visual aura. No diarrhea or sick contact is described.
Question 5 of 10
A 54-year-old patient with a history of type 1 diabetes is found by a coworker sitting on the floor of a break room, unable to speak clearly. The coworker states the patient seemed confused about twenty minutes ago and skipped lunch. On exam the paramedic notes left-sided facial droop, slurred speech, and skin that is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. The patient does not respond to questions and only moans to a sternal rub. The vital signs are BP 108/68, P 118, R 20, SpO₂ 97% on room air, and blood glucose level 38 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely differential diagnosis?
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Correct answer · Hypoglycemia
This patient has hypoglycemia. The blood glucose level is 38 mg/dL. The brain runs on glucose as its main fuel. When the sugar drops this low, the brain cannot work right. Severe hypoglycemia can cause sudden facial droop and slurred speech that look just like a stroke. The pale, cool, diaphoretic skin comes from the sympathetic nervous system reacting to the low sugar. Correct the glucose first. Then reassess the patient before you decide the problem is a stroke.
Why the others are wrong
Ischemic stroke: An ischemic stroke patient usually stays awake, understands your questions, and often answers back. The skin usually looks normal. This patient only moans to a sternal rub, has pale, cool, diaphoretic skin, and has a sugar of 38 mg/dL. Fix the glucose before you assume a blocked vessel in the brain.
Hemorrhagic stroke: often brings a sudden severe headache, vomiting, and consciousness that drops fast. The blood pressure is often very high from pressure building inside the skull. A blood pressure of 108/68 is not high. The sugar of 38 mg/dL explains what you are seeing, so treat the glucose and reassess before you assume a bleed.
Postictal state: A postictal state comes after a seizure. Orientation comes back slowly, and sometimes one side is weak for a while before it gets better. Nobody here describes any seizure activity. The sugar of 38 mg/dL accounts for the unresponsiveness and the facial droop, so correct the glucose first.
Question 6 of 10
A 66-year-old patient has left-sided weakness and gaze deviation that started 25 minutes ago. The vital signs are BP 222/118, P 88, R 18, and SpO₂ 97% on room air. The blood glucose level is 108 mg/dL. A crew member says the pressure means this has to be a bleed. Which action is most appropriate?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Transport for imaging and prearrival notification
This patient is having a stroke. The left-sided weakness and the gaze deviation started 25 minutes ago. Nothing you have in the field tells you whether this stroke is a clot or a bleed. Neither a stroke scale nor a systolic of 222 can tell you. Only imaging at the hospital can. That's why the field plan is the same for both kinds of stroke. Manage the airway and suction as needed. Ventilate to a normal carbon dioxide level. Correct a low glucose, though this patient's glucose of 108 is normal. Raise the head about 30 degrees. Do not give an antihypertensive. Transport fast and call ahead so the hospital is ready for imaging. Gaze deviation with dense weakness can also mean a large vessel occlusion. Your regional plan decides which hospital that patient goes to.
Why the others are wrong
Give an antihypertensive for the bleed: Lowering the blood pressure is a real hospital treatment for a bleed in the brain. You cannot tell a bleed from a clot without imaging. If this stroke is a clot, the high pressure is what pushes blood to the brain tissue around the clot. The hospital sets a pressure goal once imaging shows which stroke this is.
Hyperventilate to lower intracranial pressure: Hyperventilation lowers carbon dioxide, and low carbon dioxide narrows the blood vessels in the brain. Narrow vessels cut blood flow to a brain that is already short on it. Hyperventilation is saved for a short time when a patient shows active signs of herniation. This patient shows no signs of herniation, so ventilate to a normal carbon dioxide level.
Position the patient flat for perfusion: Laying a patient flat comes from shock care, where the goal is raising perfusion. In a stroke, lying flat slows the blood draining out of the head, and the pressure inside the skull goes up. Raise the head about 30 degrees and keep the neck in line.
Question 7 of 10
A 61-year-old patient with a sudden severe headache vomited once and is now unresponsive. The right pupil is 6 mm and sluggish and the left is 3 mm. The vital signs are BP 198/78, P 44, and SpO₂ 92% on room air, with respirations irregular at 8. The blood glucose level is 118 mg/dL. What do these vital signs indicate?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Rising pressure inside the skull
These vital signs mean the pressure inside the skull is rising. They make up Cushing's triad. Cushing's triad is high blood pressure with a wide pulse pressure, a slow pulse, and irregular breathing. This patient has all three. The pressure is 198/78, which is a wide pulse pressure. The pulse is 44, and the respirations are irregular at 8. The pressure in the skull has climbed high enough to push the brain against structures it should not touch. The right pupil is 6 mm and sluggish, the left is 3 mm, and the patient is unresponsive. Put together, these findings mean the brain is herniating. Ventilate to a normal carbon dioxide level. Keep the head raised about 30 degrees with the neck midline. Brief, mild hyperventilation is only a short bridge when your protocol calls for it, not a setting you leave on.
Why the others are wrong
A vagal response to the vomiting: Vomiting can drop the heart rate through a vagal response, and this patient did vomit. A vagal response does not come with a systolic pressure of 198 and irregular breathing. A vagal response also does not make one pupil dilate.
Decompensated shock from the bleed: Decompensated shock is low blood pressure with a fast, weak pulse. This patient's pressure is 198/78 and the pulse is 44. A bleed inside the skull kills by raising pressure in a closed space, not by the volume of blood lost.
An opioid effect on the brainstem: Slow breathing at 8 in an unresponsive patient is the pattern you see with opioids. An opioid gives you small, equal pupils. This patient has a 6 mm pupil on one side, and a sudden severe headache came before the collapse.
Question 8 of 10
A 27-year-old patient who is 34 weeks pregnant has a generalized seizure at home with no seizure history. The seizure has lasted 3 minutes and is ongoing. The vital signs are BP 176/108, P 104, R 20, and SpO₂ 95% on room air. The blood glucose level is 98 mg/dL. Which medication should the paramedic give?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Magnesium sulfate
This patient is having an eclamptic seizure. The patient is 34 weeks pregnant with no seizure history, and the pressure is 176/108. A new seizure with a pressure that high in a 34 week pregnancy is eclampsia, not a seizure disorder. Eclampsia comes from severe high blood pressure. The blood vessels in the brain spasm, their lining stops working normally, and the brain loses control of its own blood flow. Magnesium sulfate calms the brain cells and eases that spasm. Magnesium treats the cause instead of only stopping the convulsion. That's why magnesium sulfate replaces the benzodiazepine you would normally give first. Place the patient on the left side and transport rapidly to a hospital that can care for obstetric patients.
Why the others are wrong
Midazolam: the first line benzodiazepine on almost every seizure call. A benzodiazepine only quiets the convulsion. Midazolam does not fix the spasm in the brain's blood vessels that is driving this seizure. Magnesium sulfate goes first, and midazolam follows only if the seizures keep going.
Calcium gluconate: the antidote for magnesium toxicity. No magnesium has been given yet, so there is nothing to reverse. Once magnesium is running, lost deep tendon reflexes, a falling respiratory rate, or a dropping level of consciousness send you to calcium gluconate.
Dextrose: Checking the glucose on every seizure is correct practice, and dextrose fixes a low one. This patient's glucose is 98 mg/dL, which is normal. Dextrose has nothing to correct and only delays the magnesium.
Question 9 of 10
A 44-year-old with years of heavy daily drinking has a witnessed generalized seizure at a detox facility. Staff report the last drink was about 30 hours ago and that the patient has no seizure history. The episode stops on its own after 90 seconds and the patient is postictal. The blood glucose level is 96 mg/dL. What is the most likely cause of this seizure?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Alcohol withdrawal after stopping heavy daily drinking
This seizure is from alcohol withdrawal. The patient has been drinking heavily every day for years, and the last drink was about 30 hours ago. Alcohol withdrawal seizures usually show up between 6 and 48 hours after the last drink. Thirty hours is right inside that window. Alcohol calms the brain by boosting GABA, the brain's main calming signal. Alcohol also blocks the NMDA receptors that excite the brain. After years of heavy drinking, the brain adjusts to balance the alcohol. The brain turns its GABA side down and its NMDA side up. When the drinking suddenly stops, nothing balances the NMDA side anymore. The brain is left overexcited, and it fires a generalized seizure. Expect this patient to need a higher benzodiazepine dose than a routine seizure would. Watch for delirium tremens, which can still follow.
Why the others are wrong
A brain disorder from a lack of thiamine: Heavy drinkers really are low on thiamine, and untreated thiamine deficiency causes Wernicke encephalopathy. Wernicke encephalopathy shows up as confusion, abnormal eye movements like nystagmus or ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. A single generalized seizure that stops on its own after 90 seconds does not match. Nothing in this question describes eye or gait problems.
A first seizure from a new seizure disorder: A first seizure in a 44-year-old does need a workup for a new seizure disorder. Here the seizure came about 30 hours after years of heavy daily drinking stopped. A new seizure disorder does not explain that timing, and the staff already gave you the drinking history.
Alcohol intoxication making a seizure more likely: Alcohol is a CNS depressant while it is in the system, and intoxication can lower the seizure threshold. Intoxication and withdrawal do opposite things to the brain. This patient's last drink was 30 hours ago, so this patient is in withdrawal, not intoxicated.
Question 10 of 10
A 59-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes has sudden left-sided weakness and slurred speech that began 30 minutes ago. The patient is awake and follows commands, and the skin is warm and dry. The blood glucose level is 268 mg/dL. The vital signs are BP 152/86, P 78, R 18, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. How should the paramedic handle the blood glucose level?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Avoid any fluid with glucose, since it worsens the stroke
This patient is having a stroke, and the glucose of 268 makes the stroke worse. The sudden left-sided weakness and slurred speech that started 30 minutes ago point to a stroke, not a diabetic emergency. Brain tissue in a stroke is not getting enough blood flow. A high glucose makes that tissue burn sugar without oxygen. Lactic acid builds up in the brain tissue around the stroke, and the area of permanent damage gets bigger. You cannot safely lower a 268 in the field. Your job is to keep the glucose from climbing. Run an isotonic fluid with no dextrose in it. Give nothing with glucose, even though this patient is diabetic. Pass the glucose and the last known well time to the stroke team.
Why the others are wrong
Ignore it, since only a low glucose harms the brain: A high glucose hurts brain tissue that is short on blood flow, so this 268 is part of the injury. Most glucose checks in a stroke are looking for a low reading, because hypoglycemia is the stroke mimic you cannot miss.
Treat the high glucose as the cause of the weakness: A level of 268 does not cause weakness on one side or slurred speech. The pulse is 78, the skin is warm and dry, and the respirations are 18, so there are no signs of a hyperglycemic crisis. The high glucose did not cause this stroke.
Give a fluid bolus to bring the glucose down: Warm, dry skin and a pulse of 78 show no dehydration, so there is no volume to replace. A bolus also will not bring a 268 down much on the way in. The bolus is for diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar states, where the high glucose comes with dehydration.
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